God had been speaking to Abram for some time. Abram had consistently believed, obeyed and been rewarded throughout that time. This was not the first promise Abram had put faith in.
Now I am curious to know if it significant only that Abram believed what God said in general, or that he believed specifically what God said directly before being credit with this righteousness?
"After these things the word of the LORD came to Abram in a vision, saying,
'Do not fear, Abram,
I am a shield to you;
Your reward shall be very great.'
Abram said, 'O Lord GOD, what will You give me, since I am childless, and the heir of my house is Eliezer of Damascus?'
And Abram said, 'Since You have given no offspring to me, one born in my house is my heir.'
Then behold, the word of the LORD came to him, saying, 'This man will not be your heir; but one who will come forth from your own body, he shall be your heir.'
And He took him outside and said, 'Now look toward the heavens, and count the stars, if you are able to count them.' And He said to him, 'So shall your descendants be.'
Then he believed in the LORD; and He reckoned it to him as righteousness."
Genesis 15:1-6
What do you think?
UPDATE:
As I was studying this, I noticed that it really seemed like an "introduction" with the phrase, "Do not fear" in verse 1. But we know Abram had conversations with God prior to this. Then I noticed the phrase, "the word of God" was used to describe who Abram was hearing. I've now emphazised that phrase above in red. This is the first time in scripture that this is used.
Do you think that is significant?